18 JANUARY 2026
Q1. Jallikattu, recently seen in news, is best described as:
A. A ritual animal sacrifice performed during Tamil New Year
B. A traditional bull-taming sport associated with the Pongal festival in Tamil Nadu
C. A form of competitive goat racing practised across South India
D. A martial art performed to honour warriors in ancient Tamil society
Q2. With reference to Startup India Mission completing 10 years, consider the following statements:
- Startup India was launched in 2016 to promote entrepreneurship, innovation and investment-led growth.
- India has emerged as the world’s largest start-up ecosystem.
- The mission places special emphasis on deep-tech sectors to strengthen Atmanirbhar Bharat and reduce import dependence.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Q3. With reference to the proposed International Dugong Conservation Centre in Tamil Nadu, consider the following statements:
- The proposed site overlaps with ecologically sensitive CRZ-III (No Development Zone) and CRZ-I areas.
- Dugongs are critically endangered marine mammals that depend on seagrass meadows for survival.
- The Expert Appraisal Committee recommended increasing the use of concrete structures within the CRZ-III area.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Q4. The Reserve Bank – Integrated Ombudsman Scheme (RB-IOS), 2026, recently notified by the RBI, primarily aims to:
A. Regulate interest rates of banks and NBFCs
B. Provide a centralized, cost-effective and non-adversarial grievance redress mechanism against RBI-regulated entities
C. Replace all consumer courts dealing with financial disputes
D. Impose monetary penalties on regulated entities without hearings
Q5. Q. Under the Reserve Bank – Integrated Ombudsman Scheme (RB-IOS), 2026, which of the following statements is correct?
A. The RBI Ombudsman can award compensation without any upper monetary limit.
B. Complaints can be filed only after exhausting judicial remedies.
C. Appeals against the Ombudsman’s decision can be filed within 30 days.
D. Only banks are covered under the Integrated Ombudsman Scheme.
17 JANUARY 2026
Q1. Which of the following statements best describes the purpose and scope of the proposed Karnataka Jnana Bhandar Manuscripts and Digitalisation Bill, 2025?
A. It aims to regulate the export of ancient manuscripts and restrict private ownership of historical records.
B. It focuses only on digitising printed manuscripts preserved in state-run libraries.
C. It mandates compulsory acquisition of all inscriptions by the state government.
D. It seeks to survey, preserve, digitise, and provide public access to unpublished manuscripts of various materials linked to Karnataka, including those in private custody.
Q2. With reference to the NITI Aayog report “Achieving Efficiencies in MSME Sector through Convergence of Schemes”, consider the following statements:
- The report evaluates existing Government of India MSME schemes to assess the level of convergence.
- The report recommends integrating SFURTI with the Micro and Small Enterprises – Cluster Development Programme (MSE-CDP).
- Information convergence refers to aligning and unifying MSME schemes to eliminate operational overlaps.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Q3. Assertion (A): Ethylene Glycol ingestion can lead to severe metabolic acidosis and kidney failure in humans.
Reason (R): Ethylene Glycol is metabolized in the human body into toxic acidic compounds.
Choose the correct answer:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
Q4. With reference to Exercise Sanjha Shakti, consider the following statements:
- It is a joint Military–Civil Fusion (MCF) exercise aimed at enhancing coordination between armed forces and civil agencies.
- The exercise was conducted under the Southern Command at the Dighi (Diggi) Hills Range.
- It involved participation only from the Indian Army and excluded state police forces.
- One of its objectives is to test communication protocols and rapid response mechanisms during crisis situations.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 4 only
Q5. Kathputli, recently in news, is best described as:
A. A shadow puppetry tradition from Odisha using leather puppets
B. A traditional string puppet theatre form from Rajasthan
C. A glove puppetry art form practised mainly in Kerala
D. A rod puppetry tradition associated with West Bengal
16 JANUARY 2026
Q1. Consider the following statements regarding India’s first Vulture Conservation Portal:
- It was launched in Assam ahead of International Vulture Awareness Day.
- It was developed by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
- The portal aims to build a national network for vulture conservation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Q2. Assertion (A): Active euthanasia is illegal in India.
Reason (R): Causing death through direct medical intervention is treated as culpable homicide under Indian law.
Choose the correct answer:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
Q3. A Living Will or Advance Medical Directive allows a person to:
A. Transfer property after death
B. Authorize active euthanasia
C. Refuse life-support treatment in future medical conditions
D. Appoint a legal guardian
Q4. Consider the following statements regarding the Export Preparedness Index (EPI) 2024:
- It is released by NITI Aayog.
- It assesses export preparedness of States and Union Territories.
- It is aligned with India’s target of USD 1 trillion merchandise exports by 2030.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Q5. Who has been nominated to chair the Advisory Board on Disarmament Matters (ABDM) for the 2026–27 term?
A. Syed Akbaruddin
B. Ruchira Kamboj
C. D.B. Venkatesh Varma
D. Vikram Misri
15 JANUARY 2026
Q1. Consider the following statements regarding Quick Commerce (Q-commerce):
- Q-commerce focuses on ultra-fast delivery of essential goods, usually within 10–20 minutes.
- It relies primarily on centralized national warehouses.
- Gig workers form the backbone of last-mile delivery in Q-commerce.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Q2. The removal of speed-centric branding by quick commerce platforms indicates:
A. End of digital commerce
B. Shift towards worker-sensitive business practices
C. Government takeover of platforms
D. End of gig economy
Q3. Assertion (A): Karuna Abhiyan is widely considered as India’s first state-driven, festival-linked widlife protection campaign.
Reason (R): It was launched to rescue birds and animals injured mainly due to kite-flying during festivals like Uttarayan through coordinated state-wide efforts.
Choose the correct answer:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
Q4. Why are vultures considered ecologically important?
- They help prevent the spread of diseases.
- They contribute to natural sanitation by disposing carcasses.
- They increase soil fertility through grazing.
Select the correct answer using the code below:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Q5. Marine biotechnology primarily involves the use of:
A. Terrestrial plants for industrial enzymes
B. Marine organisms such as microbes, algae and seaweeds for bio-based products
C. Freshwater fish for pharmaceutical research only
D. Fossil fuels for chemical synthesis
14 JANUARY 2026
Q1. With reference to solar panels and biofuels, consider the following statements:
- Biofuels require large areas of land but produce relatively low energy per acre due to the low efficiency of photosynthesis.
- Solar panels convert sunlight directly into electricity with efficiencies much higher than biological processes.
- Replacing biofuel crops with solar installations can help free land for food production, reforestation, and biodiversity conservation.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Q2. With reference to the significance of carbon markets under the Paris Agreement for India, consider the following statements:
- Carbon markets can help mobilise private international finance to support India’s energy transition.
- Participation in carbon markets can facilitate access to advanced low-carbon technologies and support decarbonisation of hard-to-abate sectors.
- Carbon markets eliminate the need for domestic regulatory frameworks in participating countries.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Q3. Assertion (A): The Union Government has constituted a high-level Inter-Departmental Committee to address the rising incidence of “digital arrest” scams in India.
Reason (R): “Digital arrest” is a legally recognised procedure under Indian law that requires inter-ministerial coordination for its enforcement.
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true, but R is false
D. A is false, but R is true
Q4. The recently constituted Inter-Departmental Committee (IDC) to tackle “digital arrest” scams in India is chaired by:
A. Cabinet Secretary of India
B. Director, Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C)
C. Special Secretary (Internal Security), Ministry of Home Affairs
D. Union Home Secretary
Q5. Why is there a growing concern about the environmental impact of Artificial Intelligence (AI)?
A. AI systems depend primarily on rare earth minerals for their functioning
B. Training and deployment of AI models require large computing power, leading to high energy use, water consumption, and increased carbon emissions
C. AI development increases employment in traditional sectors, increasing poverty
D. AI technologies are restricted to developed countries and cannot be regulated
13 JANUARY 2026
Q1. With reference to delimitation in India, consider the following statements:
- Delimitation involves the redistribution of Lok Sabha seats among States based on population data.
- The present freeze on Lok Sabha seat allocation was introduced by the 84th Constitutional Amendment Act.
- Any delimitation exercise must mandatorily be based on the 2011 Census.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q2. The principle of “digressive proportionality” aims to:
(a) Provide equal seats to all States irrespective of population
(b) Allocate seats strictly in proportion to population size
(c) Ensure larger States have more seats but fewer representatives per capita
(d) Replace population with economic contribution as the basis of representation
Q3. Assertion (A): The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012 provides a comprehensive and child-centric legal framework to address sexual offences against children in India.
Reason (R): The Act is gender-neutral, clearly categorizes offences with stringent punishments, and mandates Special Courts to conduct speedy, in-camera trials while ensuring compensation and rehabilitation for child victims.
Choose the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Q4. What is the primary concern raised by smartphone manufacturers regarding India’s proposal to seek access to phone source codes under the Indian Telecom Security Assurance Requirements (ITSAR)?
(a) It would significantly increase smartphone prices in India
(b) It risks exposure of proprietary encryption systems and software architecture
(c) It mandates complete data localization of user information
(d) It eliminates the need for private cybersecurity audits
Q5. With reference to the Pax Silica Initiative, consider the following statements:
- Pax Silica is a US-led economic security partnership focused on securing semiconductor and AI-critical supply chains.
- The initiative is led by the US Department of Commerce and was launched at the first summit in 2024.
- It seeks to build trusted technology ecosystems by restricting cooperation to reliable partner countries.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
12 JANUARY 2026
Q1. Which of the following components are integrated under Climate-Resilient Agriculture?
- Climate-tolerant and genome-edited crops
- Biofertilisers and biopesticides
- AI-based agro-advisories
Select the correct answer using the code below:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Q2. Climate-Resilient Agriculture (CRA) primarily aims to:
A. Maximise short-term farm output through chemical inputs
B. Sustain productivity while adapting to climate variability
C. Replace traditional farming with industrial agriculture
D. Focus only on export-oriented crops
Q3. Assertion (A): India ranks second highest in Asia in the World Risk Index.
Reason (R): The World Risk Index measures disaster risk only on the basis of hazard frequency.
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
C. A is true, but R is false
D. A is false, but R is true
Q4. The GOBARdhan initiative contributes to urban climate action primarily by:
A. Eliminating landfill usage
B. Producing compressed biogas from organic waste
C. Promoting electric waste collection vehicles
D. Recycling electronic waste
Q5. With reference to Rani Velu Nachiyar, consider the following statements:
- She was trained in horse riding, archery, and martial arts such as Silambam and Valari.
- She ruled after the Revolt of 1857.
- She fought against British colonial forces in South India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
10 JANUARY 2026
Q1. With reference to the Piprahwa Relics, consider the following statements:
- They were discovered in the year 1898 at the Piprahwa Stupa in present-day Uttar Pradesh.
- The discovery is attributed to William Claxton Peppé, a British civil engineer.
- The relics are believed to be associated with the mortal remains of Lord Buddha.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Q2. Which of the following factors best explains India’s emergence as the world’s largest rice producer?
- Adoption of high-yielding varieties (HYVs)
- Expansion of irrigation facilities
- Policy support such as MSP and procurement
Select the correct answer using the code below:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Q3. The rice crop that is sown during May–June and harvested during September–October is known as:
A. Aman
B. Aus
C. Boro
D. Rabi
Q4. Israel recently became the first country to formally recognise which of the following entities as an independent and sovereign state?
A. Puntland
B. Western Sahara
C. Somaliland
D. South Sudan
Q5. With reference to the Election Commission of India, consider the following statements:
- The ECI is a constitutional authority.
- It is entrusted with ensuring free, fair, and credible elections in India.
- It functions under the administrative control of the Union Executive.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
9 JANUARY 2026
Q1. Which of the following statements about India’s GDP growth estimates for FY 2025–26 is correct?
A. Real GDP growth is projected to be lower than that of FY 2024–25
B. Gross Value Added (GVA) is projected to grow at 7.3%
C. Agriculture and allied activities are expected to grow faster than services
D. Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF) is projected to grow below 6%
Q2. Spina Bifida is best described as:
A. A hereditary muscular disorder affecting only adults
B. A birth defect of the spinal cord that develops during early pregnancy
C. An infectious disease caused by vitamin deficiency after birth
D. A temporary neurological condition curable with medication
Q3. Consider the following statements about India–Europe relations in the current geopolitical context:
- India’s participation in the Weimar Triangle reflects Europe’s recognition of India as a strategic and geopolitical actor, beyond its economic importance.
- Growing uncertainty in U.S. commitments to NATO and the Ukraine conflict has contributed to Europe’s search for new strategic partners like India.
- India’s engagement with Europe marks a shift away from strategic autonomy towards formal alliance-building.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Q4. Assertion (A): A 500% tariff proposed under the U.S. Sanctioning Russia Act of 2025 would effectively act as a trade embargo on Indian goods in the U.S. market.
Reason (R): Such an extremely high tariff would make Indian exports economically uncompetitive, reducing their market access in the United States.
Choose the correct answer:
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true, but R is false
D. A is false, but R is true
Q5. Under the Draft Pesticides Management Bill, which of the following penalties may be imposed for violations causing death or grievous hurt?
A. Only monetary fine up to ₹5 lakh
B. Imprisonment up to 5 years or fine between ₹10 lakh and ₹50 lakh, or both
C. Imprisonment up to 1 year with no monetary penalty
D. Cancellation of licence without criminal liability
8 JANUARY 2026
Q1. With reference to Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR) in India, consider the following statements:
- AMR occurs when microorganisms develop the ability to withstand the effects of antimicrobial medicines, making common infections difficult to treat.
- India’s National AMR Surveillance Network (NARS-Net) contributes data to the WHO’s GLASS platform.
- The WHO Global Action Plan on AMR (2015) focuses only on public awareness and rational use of antibiotics.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Q2. Assertion (A): India has largely met its Paris Agreement climate commitments related to emissions intensity reduction and non-fossil power capacity.
Reason (R): India’s absolute greenhouse gas emissions is completely eliminated due to reduced dependence on coal.
Choose the correct answer:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
Q3. Which of the following best explains why the expansion of NATGRID has raised concerns of mass surveillance in India?
A. NATGRID operates as a constitutional body with parliamentary oversight, enabling comprehensive population data mapping.
B. Integration of NATGRID with the National Population Register (NPR) enables population-wide profiling without adequate legal safeguards.
C. NATGRID is restricted only to counter-terror investigations and does not access identity-related databases.
D. The use of analytics tools like GANDIVA is limited to manual verification and does not involve automated data linkage.
Q4. Which of the following correctly describes the Karnataka Border Area Development Authority (KBADA)?
A. A constitutional body established under the Seventh Schedule
B. A statutory authority created under the Karnataka Border Area Development Authority Act, 2010
C. A joint body of Karnataka and neighbouring States for border dispute resolution
D. An advisory body under the Ministry of Home Affairs
Q5. The recently discovered 12th-century inscription at Sri Mahalakshmi Temple, K. Bettahalli is significant because it:
A. Confirms the decline of Hoysala power after the Chola invasions
B. Demonstrates close socio-political and cultural links between Hoysala Karnataka and Tamilakam
C. Establishes Sanskrit as the sole administrative language of the Hoysalas
D. Proves that Dwarasamudra was founded during the Vijayanagara period
7 JANUARY 2026
Q1. With reference to biomaterials, consider the following statements:
- Biomaterials can be derived from plants, microbes, or agricultural waste.
- Drop-in biomaterials are chemically different from petroleum-based materials and require new supply chains only.
- Polylactic Acid (PLA) is an example of a drop-out biomaterial.
- Biomaterials can be used in sectors such as packaging, textiles, and healthcare.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q2. Assertion (A): ISRO has invited Indian scientists to submit research proposals to analyse observational data from the Aditya-L1 solar mission.
Reason (R): Aditya-L1 is India’s second dedicated solar observatory positioned at the Sun–Earth L1 point to continuously study the solar atmosphere, solar winds, and space weather.
Choose the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Q3. Which Public–Private Partnership (PPP) model involves the government paying 40% of the project cost during construction while the private developer recovers the remaining investment through annuity payments?
(a) Build Operate Transfer (BOT)
(b) Design Build Finance Operate (DBFO)
(c) Engineering Procurement and Construction (EPC)
(d) Hybrid Annuity Model (HAM)
Q4. With reference to the Design Linked Incentive (DLI) Scheme for Semiconductors, consider the following statements:
- The DLI Scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) under the Semicon India Programme.
- It focuses on promoting semiconductor fabrication (fabs) rather than chip design.
- Design Infrastructure Support under the scheme is provided through the ChipIN Centre operated by C-DAC.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q5. The United Nations has declared 2026 as the International Year for Rangelands and Pastoralists. Which of the following is the primary objective of this declaration?
(a) To promote commercial agriculture and intensive livestock farming in arid regions
(b)To highlight the role of rangelands and pastoralists in biodiversity conservation, food security, and sustainable livelihoods
(c) To replace traditional pastoralism with settled farming systems
(d) To focus exclusively on carbon trading mechanisms in grassland ecosystems only
1 JANUARY 2026
1. Consider the following statements about India’s economic performance in 2025:
1. India became the world’s 4th largest economy surpassing Japan.
2. GDP growth remained above 7% in all three quarters of 2025 mentioned.
3. U.S. tariffs had no reported effect on India’s economic outlook.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 & 3 only
B. 1 & 2 only
C. 2 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3
2. Consider the following statements regarding RBI’s Trends & Progress of Banking in India 2024–25 report:
1. Digital payments account for more than 95% of India’s total payments in value terms.
2. Cheque-based transactions now constitute less than 5% share.
3. Digital payment growth in value was approximately 18%.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 & 2 only
B. 1 & 3 only
C. 3 & 2 only
D. 1, 2 & 3
3. With reference to cheetah extinction in India:
1. Cheetahs were declared extinct in India in 1952.
2. The last recorded cheetahs in India were killed in Madhya Pradesh in 1947.
3. Asiatic cheetahs today survive in India and Iran.
Which of the above is/are correct?l?
A. 1 & 2 only
B. 2 & 3 only
C. 1 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3
4. Consider the following statements regarding recent archaeological findings in Kashmir:
1. Kushan-period stupas and Buddhist structures have been unearthed at Zehanpora in Baramulla.
2. The findings reaffirm Kashmir’s role in Buddhist scholarship and transmission.
3. These remains belong to the Mauryan period.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 & 2 only
B. 2 & 3 only
C. 1 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3
30 DECEMBER 2025
1. Consider the following statements regarding the new MoRTH tunnel guidelines:
1. They mandate preparation of a Geotechnical Baseline Report (GBR).
2. They require preparation of a Risk Register with defined risk allocation.
3. They are applicable only to tunnels constructed using TBM technology.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 & 2 only
B. 1 & 3 only
C. 2 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3
2. With reference to the new landslide early warning framework developed by NITK, consider the following statements:
1. It is designed specifically for landslide-prone regions of the Western Ghats.
2. It integrates soil behaviour and deformation data along with rainfall parameters.
3. It relies only on traditional rainfall threshold alerts.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 & 3 only
B. 1 & 2 only
C. 2 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3
3. Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Tsunami-Ready’ programme in India:
1. Certification is granted under UNESCO-IOC.
2. It is a voluntary, community-based programme.
3. Only national agencies are involved; local bodies have no role.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 & 2 only
B. 1 & 3 only
C. 3 & 2 only
D. 1, 2 & 3
4. Consider the following pesticides linked to health concerns in the Kashmir apple sector:
1. Chlorpyrifos
2. Mancozeb
3. Captan
Which of the above have been internationally flagged for neurotoxicity and/or carcinogenic potential?
A. 1 & 2 only
B. 2 & 3 only
C. 1 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3
5. With reference to Punjab’s ‘Holy City’ declaration, consider the following statements:
1. The status has been granted to Amritsar, Anandpur Sahib and Talwandi Sabo.
2. The decision was unanimously passed in the Punjab Assembly.
3. The status imposes bans on liquor, tobacco and meat sales within notified areas.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 & 2 only
B. 2 & 3 only
C. 1 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3
27 DECEMBER 2025
1. Consider the following statements regarding Personality Rights in India:
1. India currently has a dedicated statute exclusively governing personality rights.
2. Courts derive personality rights through IP law and Article 21.
3. These rights protect against false endorsements and commercial misuse.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 & 2 only
B. 1 & 3 only
C. 2 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3
2. Consider the following statements about bus fire incidents in India (2021–2025):
1. India recorded over 40 reported bus fire incidents during this period.
2. Karnataka reported the highest fatalities in all states.
3. Major causes include overheating engines and electrical failures.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 & 2 only
B. 1 & 3 only
C. 2 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3
3. Consider the following statements regarding Delhi’s PM2.5 pollution:
1. Secondary ammonium sulfate contributes significantly to Delhi’s annual PM2.5.
2. It forms when SO₂-derived sulfate reacts with atmospheric ammonia.
3. Its share in PM2.5 remains highest during the summer season.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 & 2 only
B. 1 & 3 only
C. 3 & 2 only
D. 1, 2 & 3
4. Consider the following statements regarding the RGI Medical Certification of Cause of Death Report (2023):
1. Circulatory system diseases accounted for over one-third of medically certified deaths.
2. Medically certified deaths constituted less than one-fourth of total registered deaths.
3. The share of circulatory deaths increased compared to 2022.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 & 2 only
B. 2 & 3 only
C. 1 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3
5. Why is a common ATS framework important in India’s counter-terror strategy?
1. Terror and organised crime networks operate beyond State boundaries.
2. It prevents investigations from remaining isolated.
3. It enhances intelligence integration through platforms like NATGRID and NIDAAN.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1, 2 & 3
B. 2 & 3 only
C. 1 & 3 only
D. 1 & 2 only
26 DECEMBER 2025
1. Consider the following statements regarding India’s export outlook for FY 2025–26:
1. India is projected to comfortably exceed the $1 trillion export target.
2. Merchandise exports are expected to remain largely stagnant.
3. Services exports may cross $400 billion.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 & 2 only
B. 1 & 3 only
C. 2 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3
2. Consider the following statements regarding the Nilgiris AI Command Centre:
1. It is located in the Gudalur Forest Division of Tamil Nadu.
2. It uses AI-enabled cameras based on long-term elephant movement data.
3. It is not connected to any railway safety warning system.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 & 2 only
B. 1 & 3 only
C. 2 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3
3. With reference to the parachute testing for Gaganyaan, consider the following statements:
1. The recent tests focused mainly on drogue parachutes.
2. The tests were conducted using a rocket sled reaching nearly 600 km/h.
3. The facility used was located in Tamil Nadu.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 & 3 only
B. 1 & 2 only
C. 3 & 2 only
D. 1, 2 & 3
4. Consider the following statements regarding the LVM3-M6 mission:
1. It successfully placed the BlueBird Block-2 satellite into Low Earth Orbit.
2. It is the heaviest commercial satellite ever launched from India.
3. The orbit was achieved within roughly 15 minutes of launch.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 & 2 only
B. 2 & 3 only
C. 1 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3
5. Consider the following statements regarding the new mosquito migration study:
1. It provides direct evidence of mosquitoes carrying pathogens while flying at high altitudes.
2. The study was conducted in parts of West Africa using aerial sampling nets.
3. Only non-human pathogens were detected.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1, 2 & 3
B. 2 & 3 only
C. 1 & 3 only
D. 1 & 2 only
25 DECEMBER 2025
1. Regarding India’s progress toward NEP 2020 targets, consider the following:
1. NEP 2020 aims for 100% Gross Enrollment Ratio at middle and secondary levels.
2. Current secondary GER is over 90%.
3. GER decline indicates limited success in retention.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 & 2 only
B. 1 & 3 only
C. 2 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3
2. With reference to recent trends in India’s exports, consider the following statements:
1. Export contribution is becoming geographically more concentrated.
2. The Herfindahl–Hirschman Index suggests rising dispersion of export contribution among States.
3. Coastal States dominate integration into global value chains.
A. 1 & 2 only
B. 2 & 3 only
C. 1 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3
3. With reference to India’s manufacturing stagnation, consider the following:
1. High public sector wages increased economy-wide costs.
2. Real exchange rate appreciation weakened manufacturing competitiveness.
3. Import competition strengthened domestic industry.
A. 1 & 2 only
B. 2 & 3 only
C. 1 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3
4. With reference to rhino conservation, consider the following:
1. Dehorning is a non-lethal and reversible procedure.
2. Dehorned rhinos showed significantly lower poaching risk.
3. Dehorning constitutes the largest share of anti-poaching budgets.
A. 1, 2 & 3
B. 2 & 3 only
C. 1 & 3 only
D. 1 & 2 only
22-23 DECEMBER 2025
1. With reference to the Vijayanagara Empire, consider the following statements:
1. Temples functioned only as religious centres without economic roles.
2. The state invested heavily in irrigation infrastructure like tanks and canals.
3. Overseas trade formed an important component of its economy.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 only
2. The Right to Disconnect Bill is constitutionally significant because it is linked to:
A. Article 14 and equality at workplace
B. Article 19 and freedom of expression
C. Article 21 and individual autonomy
D. Article 23 and protection against exploitation
3. With reference to India’s startup funding in 2025, consider the following statements:
1. The funding decline indicates a cyclical collapse of the ecosystem.
2. DeepTech and AI-led manufacturing emerged as key growth drivers.
3. Late-stage funding increased due to renewed risk appetite.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 2 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
4. The term “freshwater lid” in the context of the Southern Ocean refers to:
A. Permanent ice shelves preventing air–sea gas exchange
B. Stratified, low-salinity surface waters limiting vertical mixing
C. Reduced wind stress over polar oceans
D. Absence of deep ocean circulation
5. With reference to the Great Indian Bustard (GIB), consider the following statements:
1. It is endemic to India and primarily dependent on grassland ecosystems.
2. It is listed under Schedule II of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
3. It acts as an indicator species for grassland health.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
6. The conservation of the Great Indian Bustard most directly reflects which constitutional principle?
A. Absolute priority of economic development
B. Separation of powers
C. State’s duty to protect wildlife and environment
D. Free trade and commerce
7. With reference to ASW Shallow Water Craft (SWC) inducted by the Indian Navy, consider the following statements:
1. They are optimised for anti-submarine operations in coastal and shallow waters.
2. They are the largest Indian naval vessels to use waterjet propulsion.
3. They are imported platforms with limited indigenous content.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
8. The Right to a Healthy Environment in India is primarily derived from which constitutional provision through judicial interpretation?
A. Article 14
B. Article 19
C. Article 21
D. Article 32
9. With reference to GhostPairing, consider the following statements:
1. It exploits WhatsApp’s Linked Devices feature to gain unauthorised access.
2. It requires SIM cloning to hijack accounts.
3.The attack is based on social engineering rather than malware.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1 & 2 only
C. 1 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3
10. Consider the following statements regarding Sivakalai archaeological site:
1. Carbon dating places iron usage at around 5300 years BP.
2. It currently represents the earliest known Iron Age evidence globally.
3. The findings were validated by the Archaeological Survey of India alone.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1 & 2 only
C. 1 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3
19 DECEMBER 2025
1. With reference to the Securities Markets Code Bill, 2025, consider the following statements:
1. It replaces three existing securities-related Acts with a single code.
2. It was first proposed in the Union Budget 2025.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
2. With reference to DHRUV64, consider the following statements:
1. It is a 64-bit, dual-core microprocessor developed by C-DAC.
2. It is based on the proprietary ARM instruction set.
3. It primarily targets high-end consumer personal computers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1 only
3. With reference to MH-60R helicopters, consider the following statements:
1. They are manufactured in India under a joint venture.
2. They are capable of anti-submarine and anti-surface warfare.
3. They support all-weather, day-and-night operations.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
4. With reference to the India–Oman CEPA, consider the following statements:
1. Oman has granted zero-duty access on more than 95% of its tariff lines.
2. India has removed tariffs on imports covering over 90% of value from Oman.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
18 DECEMBER 2025
1. With reference to the SHANTI Bill, 2025, consider the following statements:
1. It allows private sector participation in nuclear power generation in India.
2. It repeals the Atomic Energy Act, 1962 and the Civil Liability to Nuclear Damage Act, 2010.
3. It converts the Atomic Energy Regulatory Board into a constitutionally mandated body.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
2. Allowing higher FDI in the insurance sector is expected to have which of the following impacts?
1. Increased insurance penetration
2. Greater competition and innovation
3. Reduced role of regulation
Select the correct answer:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
3. With reference to the Supreme Court’s Aravalli order (2025), consider the following statements:
1. The Court adopted a uniform elevation-based definition for Aravalli hills.
2. All mining activities in the Aravalli range were permanently banned.
3. The order was based on recommendations of the Central Empowered Committee.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
4. The ecological significance of the Aravalli range includes:
1. Acting as a barrier against the eastward expansion of the Thar Desert
2. Serving as major glacier-fed river systems
3. Facilitating groundwater recharge through fractured rock systems
Select the correct answer using the code below
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
5. With reference to Project Suncatcher, consider the following statements:
1. It proposes satellite-based data centres powered entirely by solar energy.
2. It is aimed at reducing the environmental footprint of AI data infrastructure on Earth.
3. It is part of Google’s commercial cloud expansion programme.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
15-16 DECEMBER 2025
1. With reference to the Prime Minister Professorship, consider the following statements:
1. It aims to decentralise research excellence beyond elite institutions.
2. It is limited to funding individual research projects.
3. It mandates full-time relocation to the host university.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
2. Which of the following best explains the significance of reclaiming unclaimed assets in India?
A. Reduces fiscal deficit directly
B. Enhances financial inclusion and citizen trust
C. Increases government non-tax revenue
D. Promotes monetisation of public sector banks
3. With reference to Jackson Gate, consider the following statements:
1. It was constructed during the Manikya dynasty to mark the visit of the Governor of Bengal.
2. Its architectural design drew inspiration from Hyderabad’s Charminar.
3. It functioned as the main entrance to the Tripura Legislative Assembly.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
4. With reference to International Anti-Corruption Day, consider the following statements:
1. It is observed annually on 9 December.
2. It is linked to the United Nations Convention against Corruption.
3. The 2025 theme focuses on institutional reforms alone.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
5. Consider the following statements about the UNCAC Conference of States Parties:
1. It serves as the supreme decision-making body of UNCAC.
2. The 11th session is scheduled to be held in Doha in December 2025.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
6. With reference to the proposed VB-G RAM G Bill, consider the following statements:
1. It increases guaranteed employment days beyond MGNREGA limits.
2. It retains a demand-driven legal entitlement to employment.
3. It allows States to seek additional funds based on rural demand.
Which of the statements are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3
7. With reference to the revised Seismic Zonation Map 2025, consider the following statements:
1. A new Zone VI has been introduced as the highest seismic risk category.
2. The Himalayan belt is now uniformly classified under the highest-risk zone.
3. Zonation is still primarily based on historical earthquake events.
Which of the statements are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
8. India’s high seismic vulnerability is mainly due to:
A. Stable continental shield and old mountains
B. Collision of Indian and Eurasian plates and active Himalayan faults
C. Excessive urbanisation alone
D. Volcanic activity in peninsular India
9. With reference to INSV Kaundinya, consider the following statements:
1. It is constructed using metal fastenings to improve durability.
2. Its design draws inspiration from Ajanta Cave paintings.
3. It was inducted into the Indian Navy in 2025.
Which of the statements are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
10. With reference to UNESCO’s Intangible Cultural Heritage (ICH), consider the following statements:
1. India hosted the 20th ICH Intergovernmental Committee session in 2025.
2. The session was held at a UNESCO World Heritage Site in New Delhi.
Which of the statements are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
13 DECEMBER 2025
1. With reference to Census 2027, consider the following statements:
1. It will be India’s first fully digital census.
2. It will enumerate all castes for the first time since Independence.
3. It was postponed due to the COVID-19 pandemic.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
2. Global best practices in air pollution control highlight:
1. Political leadership and long-term planning
2. Airshed-based and health-driven standards
3. Exclusive reliance on short-term emergency measures
Which are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
3. Which of the following are expected benefits of Ramsar designation?
1. Enhanced habitat protection
2. Promotion of eco-tourism
3. Expansion of large-scale commercial construction
Select the correct answer:
A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
4. With reference to Pax Silica, consider the following statements:
1. It is a US-led initiative to secure the silicon and technology supply chain.
2. India is a founding member of Pax Silica.
3. It focuses on trusted ecosystems including semiconductors, AI and data infrastructure.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1 and 3 only
5. Critical minerals are strategically important because they are essential for:
1. Clean energy technologies
2. Semiconductors and advanced manufacturing
3. Defence and strategic industries
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
12 DECEMBER 2025
1. Consider the following statements regarding the constitutionality of narco-analysis:
1. Narco-analysis without consent violates Article 20(3) of the Constitution.
2. Forced narco tests are permissible if ordered by a High Court for investigation.
3. The Supreme Court has held that involuntary narco tests violate bodily integrity under Article 21.
Which of the above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
2. Consider the following statements about recent rupee depreciation:
1. Rupee weakness is mainly due to a widening current account deficit.
2. A fall in foreign capital inflows can cause rupee depreciation even if GDP growth is strong.
3. In 2024-25, net capital inflows were insufficient to finance the CAD.
Which are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
3. Consider the following statements regarding early Martian climate:
1. Geological evidence suggests that Mars once had flowing rivers and active hydrological cycles.
2. The warm and wet phase on Mars existed primarily during the period 4.1–3.7 billion years ago.
3. The recent IIT Bombay study concludes that early Mars was always colder than early Earth.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
4. Consider the following statements:
1. PM2.5 pollution in India is now limited mainly to northern states during winter.
2. More than 75% of Indians breathe air worse than national standards.
3. Low-income groups face a disproportionate pollution burden due to proximity to industrial clusters and landfills.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
10 -11 DECEMBER 2025
1. With reference to citizen rights under the Kutumba Bill 2025, consider the following:
1. Citizens have the right to know whether their data is being processed.
2. Citizens can demand a full copy of all raw data stored in the Kutumba registry.
3. Citizens have the right to know the purpose of processing and the agencies with which their data is shared.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
2. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court’s interpretation of Section 11 of the POSH Act:
1. Section 11 requires that the ICC conducting the inquiry must always belong to the respondent’s workplace.
2. The Supreme Court held that a restrictive interpretation of Section 11 would defeat the welfare-oriented purpose of the POSH Act.
3. The judgment allows an ICC from one department to inquire into a complaint involving an employee from a different department.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
3. Consider the following statements regarding income and wealth inequality in India as per the World Inequality Report 2026:
1. The top 10% capture more than half of India’s national income.
2. The bottom 50% hold more national wealth than the top 1%.
3. Wealth inequality is sharper than income inequality.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only
4. Consider the following statements about the Current Account in India’s Balance of Payments:
1. Remittances are recorded under the current account.
2. Investment income from abroad forms part of the current account.
3. Foreign portfolio investment inflows are included in the current account.
Which of the statements are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
5. With reference to the Sarahan Pheasantry’s captive breeding achievements, consider the following:
1. The world’s first successful captive breeding of the western tragopan occurred at Sarahan.
2. Survival of captive chicks improved by replicating natural vegetation and adjusting diets seasonally.
3. The captive population retains more than 85% of the genetic diversity of the eight wild founders.
Which statements are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
6. Consider the following statements regarding UNESCO’s Representative List of Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity:
1. It is established under the 1972 World Heritage Convention.
2. It aims to promote respect for cultural diversity and safeguard living heritage.
3. Inscription requires strong community participation and intergenerational continuity.
Which of the statements are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
7. Consider the following statements regarding the National Defence Authorisation Act (NDAA) 2026:
1. The NDAA sets annual defence priorities for the US, including policies for the Indo-Pacific region.
2. The NDAA 2026 explicitly calls for weakening India’s defence partnerships to avoid overdependence.
3. The Act reflects growing strategic convergence between India and the US amid China’s rise.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
8. According to recent data, Which of the following States showed a negative tax–devolution gap (tax share > devolution share)?
1. Tamil Nadu
2. Telangana
3. Rajasthan
4. Goa
Choose the correct answer:
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
9. Consider the following statements regarding the recent US policy changes for H-1B visas:
1. The US has expanded mandatory social-media vetting to all H-1B applicants and their dependents.
2. Social-media scrutiny was previously applied to categories such as F, M, and J visas.
3. The policy change reduces the documentation burden on H-1B applicants.
Which of the statements are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
8 DECEMBER 2025
1. Consider the following statements regarding recent monetary policy actions:
1. The RBI reduced repo rate by 25 bps, bringing it to 5.25%.
2. The cumulative rate cuts since February amount to 125 bps.
3. The policy stance was shifted from neutral to accommodative.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
2. Rock Eagle Owl can be identified by which of the following traits?
1. Large horn-like tufts
2. White throat patch with black stripes
3. Bright red feathers on wings
Which statements are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
3. Consider the following statements regarding the newly launched Centre of Excellence (CoE) for Sustainability & Climate Change:
1. It was developed by C-CAMP in partnership with Ashraya Hasta Trust.
2. The first-year target is to develop at least 10 innovation-based solutions.
3. Its focus is predominantly on fossil-fuel based technologies.
Which statements are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
4. Consider the following statements regarding NATGRID:
1. It became operational in 2023.
2. It was conceptualised after the 26/11 Mumbai attacks.
3. It functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
Medieval Indian History
Q1. Which of the following Sultans built the Hauz-i-Khas reservoir in Delhi?
(a) Alauddin Khalji
(b) Iltutmish
(c) Firuz Shah Tughlaq
(d) Balban
Q2. Who among the following abolished the hereditary IQTA system and stopped granting large jagirs?
(a) Balban
(b) Alauddin Khalji
(c) Muhammad bin Tughlaq
(d) Sikandar Lodi
Q3. The Battle of Talikota (1565) led to the decline of:
(a) Bahmani Kingdom
(b) Vijayanagara Empire
(c) Rajput Confederacy
(d) Gajapati Kingdom
Q4. Which of the following statements about the Bhakti movement is correct?
(a) It rejected caste distinctions completely.
(b) It accepted the authority of Brahmins fully.
(c) It denied the theory of incarnation.
(d) It focused only on ritualistic worship.
Q5. Which Delhi Sultan first introduced the agricultural pricing and market regulation system?
(a) Balban
(b) Alauddin Khalji
(c) Muhammad bin Tughlaq
(d) Ibrahim Lodi
Q6. Which Mughal emperor transferred his capital from Agra to Aurangabad?
(a) Jahangir
(b) Aurangzeb
(c) Shah Jahan
(d) Humayun
Q7. The Chahalgani (Group of Forty nobles) was established by:
(a) Qutb-ud-din Aibak
(b) Ghiyas-ud-din Balban
(c) Iltutmish
(d) Muhammad bin Tughlaq
Q8. Who among the following rulers introduced tokens made of copper as currency?
(a) Sher Shah Suri
(b) Alauddin Khalji
(c) Muhammad bin Tughlaq
(d) Akbar
Q9. The land revenue system “Zabt” was introduced by which ruler?
(a) Akbar
(b) Aurangzeb
(c) Sher Shah Suri
(d) Jahangir
Q10. Malik Kafur was a general under which Delhi Sultan?
(a) Balban
(b) Muhammad bin Tughlaq
(c) Alauddin Khalji
(d) Bahlol Lodi
Q11. The author of Ain-i-Akbari is:
(a) Abdul Hamid Lahori
(b) Badauni
(c) Abul Fazl
(d) Nizamuddin Ahmad
Q12. Guru Arjan Dev was executed during the reign of:
(a) Akbar
(b) Jahangir
(c) Shah Jahan
(d) Aurangzeb
Q13. Which of the following dynasties was associated with the Gol Gumbaz structure?
(a) Adil Shahi
(b) Nizam Shahi
(c) Imad Shahi
(d) Qutb Shahi
Q14. Who constructed the Grand Trunk Road from Bengal to Punjab?
(a) Akbar
(b) Sher Shah Suri
(c) Jahangir
(d) Sikandar Lodi
Q15. Which Sultan adopted the title “Sikandar-i-Sani”?
(a) Balban
(b) Muhammad bin Tughlaq
(c) Firuz Tughlaq
(d) Alauddin Khalji
FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS
Q1. Consider the following statements:
Fundamental Rights are enforceable against both State and private individuals.
Fundamental Rights are automatically suspended during a National Emergency.
Parliament can modify Fundamental Rights through a Constitutional Amendment.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q2. Consider the following statements regarding Article 14:
Article 14 permits classification based on intelligible differentia.
Article 14 guarantees equality of outcome.
Both Indian citizens and foreign nationals are entitled to equality before law under Article 14.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q3. Consider the following statements regarding Article 19:
Only Indian citizens can claim rights under Article 19.
The rights under Article 19 are available even during a National Emergency (except Article 19).
Right to form associations includes the right to form unions.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q4. Consider the following statements about the Right against Exploitation:
Prohibition of child labour is a Fundamental Right under Article 24.
Forced labour is punishable even if some payment is made.
Begar is prohibited only in the public sector.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q5. Consider the following statements about Cultural and Educational Rights:
Minorities of India can be linguistic or religious groups.
Article 29 applies only to minorities, while Article 30 applies to both minorities and non-minorities.
Minority institutions receive special protection from discrimination in grants-in-aid.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q6. Consider the following statements:
Article 32 is a fundamental right in itself.
Article 32 gives Supreme Court power to issue writs.
Article 32 can be suspended by President under Article 359.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3 only
Q7. With reference to writs in India, consider the following statements:
Habeas Corpus can be issued even against private individuals.
Mandamus cannot be issued against the President of India.
Prohibition is issued by a higher court to a lower court.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q8. Consider the following statements:
Right to life includes the right to speedy trial.
Right to education is now a fundamental right for children up to age 14.
Right to property is a fundamental right under Article 31A.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q9. Consider the following statements related to Preventive Detention:
Parliament has exclusive power to make laws regarding preventive detention.
A detained person must be informed of grounds for detention.
A detained person has the right to legal representation.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q10. Consider the following statements regarding Directive Principles and Fundamental Rights:
If a law violates a Fundamental Right and aims to implement a Directive Principle, it is unconstitutional.
42nd Amendment gave precedence to Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights in certain cases.
Right to Education emerged from harmonising DPSPs and Fundamental Rights.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
5 DECEMBER 2025
1. Consider the following statements about India’s silk sector trends:
1. India’s raw silk production has recorded an increase in 2024–25.
2. India is self-sufficient in raw silk and does not import any silk.
3. Mulberry cultivation is spreading from southern districts to newer regions like Belagavi and Haveri.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
2. Consider the following statements about the institutional design of DHRUVA of Department of Posts:
1. A Section-8 not-for-profit entity may be created to run the system, similar to NPCI.
2. Address Information Agents (AIAs) handle consent-management architecture.
3. The system excludes private-sector participation to protect user privacy
Which statements are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
3. Consider the following statements:
1. De-globalisation trends weaken trade and technology flows, straining multilateral frameworks.
2. Developing countries, including India, have sought reforms in global governance structures.
3. Multilateralism is incompatible with inclusive international institutions.
Which statements are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
4. Consider the following statements about Cyclone Ditwah:
1. It caused severe flooding and landslides in Sri Lanka, leading to large-scale displacement.
2. The India Meteorological Department (IMD) issued warnings for Tamil Nadu, Puducherry, and Andhra Pradesh.
3. It made landfall in India before affecting Sri Lanka.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
4 DECEMBER 2025
1. Consider the following statements about digital health under SNSPA:
1. eSanjeevani has delivered over 10 crore teleconsultations, mostly to women.
2. Digital tools help overcome mobility and distance barriers for rural women.
3. Aadhaar-based authentication has uniformly improved access for pregnant women.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
2. Consider the following statements about the District Export Promotion Committee (DEPC):
1. It brings together district administration, exporters, logistics agencies, and port authorities.
2. It helps resolve export bottlenecks and aligns district needs with ongoing infrastructure projects.
3. It functions only in coastal districts with export ports.
How many of the above statements are correct?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None
3. Coral reef protection in India is supported by which of the following laws?
1. Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
2. Biological Diversity Act, 2002
3. Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
4. Which of the following are classified as digital frauds in India?
1. SIM swapping
2. Ransomware attacks
3. Identity theft
4. GPS spoofing
5. Online financial frauds
Select the correct answer using the code below:
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 2, 4 and 5 only
C. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only
2 DECEMBER 2025
1. Consider the following statements regarding the Startup and Technology Museum in Bengaluru:
1. It will be India’s first museum dedicated to startups and technology.
2. It is being developed entirely by the central government.
3. The museum will be located at the NGEF campus in Baiyappanahalli.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
2. With reference to the Sanchar Saathi application, consider the following statements:
1. It allows users to verify a mobile device’s IMEI number.
2. It enables users to block or trace stolen phones.
3. It can identify all mobile numbers registered under a user’s name.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
