Practice Test

Test 1: Indian Polity & Constitution

by Mentors4ias · May 13, 2019

In which of the following case/s the six rights guaranteed by article 19 can be suspended?

1. External Aggression.
2. Internal Emergency.
3. When Martial Law is in force.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 & 3 only.
3. 1 & 3 only.
4. 1, 2 & 3.

Article 32 confers the right to remedies for the enforcement of the FR of an aggrieved citizen. Consider the following statements w.r.t article 32.

1. Parliament can suspend this right during national emergency.
2. Only SC shall have the power to issue writs for the enforcement of any of the FR.

Correct statement/s is/are:

1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None

Which of the following statement/s is/are correct regarding Constitutional Amendment bill.

1. Prior permission of President is required before introducing the constitutional amendment bill in parliament.
2. President must give his assent to the bill if duly passed by both houses.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None

The emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of Governor can be altered by:

1. A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by simple majority of Parliament.
2. A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by special majority of Parliament.
3. A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by special majority of the Parliament and ratified by half of the state legislatures.
4. By a normal legislative process that does not require Constitutional Amendment.

Which of the following is/are federal feature/s of our constitution.

1. Supremacy of the Constitution.
2. Rigid Constitution.
3. Independent Judiciary.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 & 3 only.
3. 1 & 3 only.
4. 1, 2 & 3.

Which of the following statements are true about Centre – State relations.

1. In respect to matters enumerated in the concurrent list, the executive power rests with the states.
2. In respect to matters enumerated in the concurrent list, the legislative power rests with the centre.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.

Which of the following statements are true about Centre – State relations.

1. During the proclamation of emergency (Article 352) the center can give direction to a state on any matter.
2. During the proclamation of emergency (Article 352) President can modify the constitutional distribution of revenues between the Centre & the states.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.

Which of the following statements are correct.

1. The chairman and members of state PSC are appointed by the Governor, but can be removed only by the President.
2. The state Election Commissioner is appointed by the Governor but can be removed only by the President.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.

Which of the following statement is correct with regard to Proclamation of Emergency.

1. Resolution approving & disapproving the proclamation of emergency is to be passed by either house of parliament by a special majority.
2. Resolution approving & disapproving the proclamation of emergency is to be passed by either house of parliament by a simple majority.
3. Resolution disapproving the proclamation of emergency is to be passed by either house of parliament by a simple majority.
4. None of these.

Which of the following situation/s will be proper to impose Presidents rule in a state (Article 356).

1. Where after general elections to the assembly, no party secures a majority.
2. Serious maladministration in the state.
3. Stringent financial exigencies of the state.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 & 3 only.
3. 1 & 3 only.
4. 1, 2 & 3.

Which of the following situation/s are correct with regard to Proclamation of Financial Emergency (Article 360).

1. It can be extended to an indefinite period with an approval of the parliament for every six months.
2. A resolution approving the proclamation of financial emergency is to be passed by either house of parliament by simple majority.
3. The President may issue directions for reduction of salaries and allowances of Supreme Court and High Court Judges.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 & 3 only.
3. 1 & 3 only.
4. 1, 2 & 3.

The Electoral College for President’s election consist of:

1. Elected members of both the houses of parliament.
2. Elected members of the legislative assemblies.
3. Elected members of all Union Territories.

1. 1.
2. 2 & 3.
3. 1 & 2.
4. 1, 2 & 3.

When the offices of both Speaker and Deputy Speaker falls vacant –

1. The members of Lok Sabha immediately elect a Speaker.
2. The senior most willing member of Lok Sabha becomes the speaker.
3. The President appoints any member of Lok Sabha as speaker.
4. The Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha presides over till the next speaker is elected.

With Regard to Constitutional Amendment Bill–

1. The President can reject the bill but cannot return the bill.
2. The President cannot reject the bill but can return the bill.
3. The President can neither reject the bill nor return the bill.
4. The President can either reject the bill or return the bill.

The correct statement/s with regard to Ordinance making power of President is/are –

1. The President cannot promulgate an ordinance to amend tax laws.
2. The President cannot promulgate an ordinance to amend the constitution.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.

The Vice President can be removed from office before completion of his term in which of the following manner?

1. She/he can be impeached in similar manner as President.
2. A Resolution of Rajya Sabha passed by special majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha.
3. A Resolution of Rajya Sabha passed by simple majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha.
4. A Resolution of Rajya Sabha passed by an absolute majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha.

The Representatives of states & UT in the Rajya Sabha are elected by:

1. The members of the State Legislative Assembly only.
2. The elected members of the State Legislative Assembly only.
3. The system of proportional representation by single transferrable vote.
4. The system of proportional representation by List.

1. 1 & 3.
2. 1 & 4.
3. 2 & 3.
4. 2 & 4.

Which of the following criteria is laid down by the constitution for a person to be chosen a member of parliament:

1. If a candidate is to contest a seat reserved for SC / ST, he must be a member of a SC / ST in any state or Union Territory.
2. He/she must not have been punished for preaching and practicing social crimes such as untouchability, dowry & sati.
3. He/she must not have any interest in government contracts, works or services.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 & 3 only.
3. 1, 2, & 3.
4. None of these.

Which of the following statements are correct.

1. If a MLA is elected to be a MP, his seat in parliament becomes vacant if he does not resign his seat in the state legislature within 14 days.
2. If a person is elected to two seats in a house, he should exercise his option for one. Otherwise both seats become vacant.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.

The office of the ‘Whip’ is mentioned in:

1. Constitution of India.
2. Rules of the house.
3. In a separate Parliamentary Statute.
4. None.

The office of the Leader of the opposition is mentioned in:

1. Constitution of India.
2. Rules of the house.
3. A separate Parliamentary Statute.
4. None.

When the Lok Sabha is Dissolved:

1. A bill passed by Lok Sabha pending in Rajya Sabha does not lapse.
2. A bill pending in Rajya Sabha & not passed by Lok Sabha does not lapse.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.

A minister who is not a member of either house (Note: A person can remain a minister for six months, without being a member of either house of parliament):

1. Can participate in the proceedings of Lok Sabha only.
2. Can participate in the proceedings of Rajya Sabha only.
3. Can participate in the proceedings of either house of parliament.
4. Cannot participate till he becomes a Member of either house of parliament.

Consider the following statements with regard to Calling Attention motion and Zero Hour:

1. Both are Indian innovation in the parliamentary procedure.
2. Both are not mentioned in the rules of procedure.
3. Only Zero hour is Indian innovation.
4. Only Zero Hour is not mentioned in the rules of procedure.

The correct statements is/are:

1. 1 & 2 only.
2. 3 & 4 only.
3. 2 & 3 only.
4. 1 & 4 only.

Which of the following motion/s if passed leads to the defeat of the government:

1. Censure Motion.
2. Cut Motion.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.

The decision whether a bill is money bill or not is decided by the speaker, this decision cannot be questioned by:

1. Any court of law.
2. Lok Sabha.
3. President of India.

1. 1 & 2 only.
2. 2 & 3 only.
3. 2 only.
4. None of these.

Which of the following condition may lead to the resignation of the government:

1. Defeat of an ordinary bill introduced by a minister.
2. Defeat of a money bill.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.

Which of the following is/are correct:

1. A Money bill can be introduced only in Lok Sabha.
2. A Money bill is also a Financial Bill.
3. All Financial bills can be introduced only on the recommendation of the President.

1. 1 only.
2. 1 & 2 only.
3. 1, 2 & 3.
4. None of these.

Which of the following Expenditure is/are the expenditure ‘Charged’ on the Consolidated fund of India:

1. Emoluments and allowances of President & Vice President.
2. Salaries, allowances and pensions of the Judges of the Supreme Court & high court.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.

Which of the following qualification/s is/are laid down by the constitution for a person to be appointed as the Governor of a state:

1. He should be a citizen of India.
2. Must have completed the age of 35 years.
3. He shall not belong to the state where he is appointed.

1. 1 only.
2. 1 & 2 only.
3. 1, 2 & 3.
4. None of the above.

Which of the following officials take the Oath that has the following lines: “To preserve protect and defend the constitution”

1. President.
2. Governor.
3. Chief Justice of India.

1. 1 only.
2. 1 & 2 only.
3. 1, 2 & 3.
4. None of the above.

Which of the following situation will bring about the collapse of the council of ministers of a state.

1. Resignation by Chief Minister.
2. Death of Chief Minister.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.

Which of the following statements are correct:

1. President can nominate 2 members from the Anglo – Indian community if not adequately represented in LS.
2. Governor can nominate 2 members from the Anglo – Indian community if not adequately represented in LA.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.

When in a bicameral legislature, an ordinary bill, which has originated in the assembly is rejected by the council:

1. Will be considered in a joint sitting to resolve the disagreement.
2. The assembly can override the council by passing the bill for the second time with or without any amendments.
3. The council does not have power to reject any bill that has originated in the assembly and hence the bill is deemed to have passed.
4. The bill ends and becomes dead.

Chief Justice of High court is appointed by:

1. The President after consultation with the CJI.
2. The President after consultation with the CJI & Governor of state.
3. The Governor on the recommendation of President who in turn consults the CJI.
4. The President after consultation with the Governor of the state & a collegium of two very senior SC judges headed by CJI.

Which of the following statements are correct:

1. The High court cannot issue writs to any person outside its territorial jurisdiction.
2. An aggrieved person can approach the Supreme Court directly against the decision of a tribunal.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.

Correct statements with regard to Panchayati Raj Institutions are:

1. The people directly elect all members of Panchayat at the village, intermediate and district levels.
2. Governor can remove the State Election Commissioner on the recommendation of the State Legislature.
3. The 73^rd Amendment act of 1992 (PRI Act) is applicable to all states except J&K.

1. 1 only.
2. 1 & 3 only.
3. 1, 2 & 3.
4. 2 & 3 only.

Corrects statement/s with regard to UTs is/are:

1. The parliament can make laws on any subject of three lists for the UT except Delhi and Puducherry.
2. The Lt. Governor of Delhi is not empowered to promulgate ordinances.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.

Corrects statement/s with regard to Election Commission is/are:

1. The constitution debars the retiring election commissioners from any further appointment by the government.
2. The election commission is not concerned with the elections to state legislatures, for this the constitution provides for a separate state election commission.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.

Which of the following statement/s is/are correct with regard to Joint State Public Service Commission (JSPSC):

1. President can provide for a JSPSC on the request of the state legislatures concerned.
2. JSPSC will be considered as a constitutional body with all the powers of a SPSC.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.

Which of the following funds/authorities/bodies can be audited by CAG:

1. Consolidated funds of India, States & UTs having legislative assembly.
2. Contingency funds of India.
3. Public account of States.
4. Receipts and expenditures of PPP.
5. Local bodies.

1. 1, 2 & 3 only.
2. 1, 2 & 5 only.
3. 1, 3, 4 & 5 only.
4. All.

Which of the following statement/s is/are correct:

1. Right to Vote is not a FR but a Constitutional right.
2. Prisoners and under trials in India do not have the Right to Vote.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.

Which of the following statement/s is/are correct:

1. If somebody is convicted for some offence and he is sentenced to imprisonment for 3 years he cannot contest elections.
2. A person cannot contest from more than two constituencies for a Lok Sabha/Vidhan Sabha election.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.

Which of the following feature/s of the constitution of India has/have been borrowed from GOI Act 1935:

1. Office of the Governor.
2. Emergency Provisions.
3. Legislative Procedure.
4. Bicameralism.
5. Federation with a strong centre.

1. 1, 2 & 4 only.
2. 1, 3, 4 & 5 only.
3. 1 & 2 only.
4. None of the above options are correct.

Which of the following term/s was/were added by the 42^nd Amendment act in our Preamble:

1. Socialist.
2. Secular.
3. Republic.

1. 1 & 2 only.
2. 1 only.
3. 2 & 3 only.
4. 1, 2 & 3.

Which of the following statement/s is/are correct:

1. Indian territory can be ceded to a foreign state without amending the constitution as mentioned in article 368.
2. Resolution of boundary dispute between India and another country does not require constitutional amendment.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.

Which of the following statements is/are true:

1. High court can refuse to exercise its writ jurisdiction.
2. Territorial jurisdiction of SC for the purpose of issuing writs is wider than that of a High Court.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.

Which of the following schedules can be amended by simple majority of Parliament.

1. Second Schedule.
2. Fifth Schedule.
3. Sixth Schedule
4. Seventh Schedule.

1. 1 only.
2. 1 & 4 only.
3. 2 & 3 only.
4. 1, 2 & 3 only.

In which of the following cases parliament can make laws in any matter enumerated in the state list.

1. During National Emergency.
2. During Presidents Rule.
3. To Implement International Agreements.

1. 1 only.
2. 1 & 4 only.
3. 2 & 3 only.
4. 1, 2 & 3 only.

Article 358 & 359 describe the effect of a National Emergency on the Fundamental right. Which of the following statements are correct with regard to Article 358 & 359.

1. Article 358 operates only in the case of External emergency and not in the case of Internal emergency.
2. Article 359 operates in case of both External & Internal emergency.
3. Article 358 suspends FR under article 19 for the entire duration of emergency.
4. Article 358 extends to the entire country whereas article 359 may extend to entire country or part of it.

1. 1 & 2 only.
2. 1, 2 & 3 only.
3. 2, 3 & 4 only.
4. 1, 2, 3 & 4

‘Economic Justice’ the objectives of Constitution has been as one of the Indian provided in

1. the Preamble and Fundamental Rights
2. the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy
3. the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy
4. None of the above

In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied institutionally in the parliamentary government?

1. Members of the Cabinet are Members of the Parliament.
2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament.
3. Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Consider the following statements:

1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House.
2. While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Which of the following statements is/are true:

1. The Constituent Assembly was a legislative body apart from constitution making body.
2. The Constituent Assembly was a sovereign body.
3. Both wrong
4. Both correct

Which of the following statements is/are true:

1. The 73^rd and 74^th amendment brought in changes in the levels of government.
2. From a 2-tier government, it changed it to a 4-tier government, bringing a new level with each amendment.
3. both correct
4. both wrong

Which of the following statements is/are true:

1. Article 2 of the constitution gives the right to the government to create new states into the Union of India which are not part of India already.
2. Article 3 gives the power to the government to change the boundaries of the state within India.
3. both correct
4. both wrong

With reference to the procedure of the Mercy petitions in India, consider the following statements:

1. A mercy petition can be filed only by Indian Citizens
2. There is no time limit for the president to respond on the mercy petition
3. The mercy petition is subject to Judicial Review
4. In India, the only authority to decide on mercy petitions is the President

Which among the above statements is / are correct?

1. Only 1 & 2 are correct
2. Only 1, 2 & 3 are correct
3. Only 2 & 3 are correct
4. 1, 2, 3 & 4 are correct

The President of India can nominate to how many members to Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha respectively?

1. 10,3
2. 12,2
3. 10,2
4. 12, 3

For removal of a Governor from office, the President seeks advice from __:

1. Council of Ministers
2. Supreme Court
3. Chief Minister of the concerned state
4. None of them

In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is included in the

1. Preamble to the Constitution
2. Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)
3. Fundamental Duties
4. Ninth Schedule

Answers

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