Q1. Consider the following statements about the Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) in the context of the India–EU FTA:

1. The Agreement includes provisions for technical assistance to help Indian MSMEs meet green compliance standards.
2. The FTA completely exempts Indian exports from the EU’s CBAM.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q2. With reference to the Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS), consider the following statements:

1. IONS is a voluntary and cooperative forum of navies of Indian Ocean littoral states.
2. It is a treaty-based organisation with legally binding commitments.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q3. Assertion (A): The Solid Waste Management Rules, 2026 promote segregation of waste at source into four categories.

Reason (R): Source-level segregation improves recycling efficiency and reduces the volume of waste sent to landfills.

A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

C. A is true, but R is false

D. A is false, but R is true

Q4. Which of the following principles are incorporated in the SWM Rules, 2026?

1. Circular Economy
2. Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR)
3. Polluter Pays Principle

Select the correct answer using the code below:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q5. Which of the following countries are part of the IGP-HF airshed covered in the report (World bank’s A Breath of Change Report)?

1. Bangladesh
2. Bhutan
3. Sri Lanka
4. Pakistan

Select the correct answer using the code below:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1, 2 and 4 only

C. 2, 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q1. The World Economic Forum’s decision to establish a Centre for the Fourth Industrial Revolution in Andhra Pradesh primarily aims to:

A. Develop defence manufacturing and aerospace technologies

B. Promote innovation-led energy transition and strengthen cyber resilience across industries

C. Expand traditional industrial employment through labour-intensive sectors

D. Regulate digital taxation and e-commerce platforms globally

Q2. Which of the following statements regarding CERT-In is/are correct?

1. CERT-In was established under Section 70B of the Information Technology Act, 2000.
2. CERT-In functions under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
3. CERT-In is responsible only for investigating cyber crimes, not for prevention or awareness.

Choose the correct answer:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q3. Assertion (A): Community participation is a central pillar of India’s groundwater management strategy.

Reason (R): Schemes such as Atal Bhujal Yojana and Jal Sanchay Jan Bhagidari encourage local communities to adopt rainwater harvesting, aquifer recharge, and demand-side water management practices.

Choose the correct option:

A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

C. A is true, but R is false

D. A is false, but R is true

Q4. Which of the following statements about the polar vortex is/are incorrect?

1. A weakened polar vortex can make the jet stream wavy, allowing cold Arctic air to spill into mid-latitudes.
2. Sudden Stratospheric Warming (SSW) strengthens the polar vortex and confines cold air near the poles.

options:

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q5. Which of the following statements about the Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) is/are correct?

1. APEDA was established under the APEDA Act, 1985 and functions under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
2. APEDA is responsible for implementing the National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP) in India.

Options:

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q1. Which of the following statements about the C-295 transport aircraft is/are correct?

1. It is a medium-range, twin-engine turboprop military transport aircraft.
2. It is being manufactured in India through an Airbus–Tata collaboration at Vadodara.
3. It is designed to replace the ageing Avro-748 aircraft of the Indian Air Force.
4. It is India’s first indigenously developed fighter aircraft produced by the private sector.

Options:

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. 1 and 4 only

C. 2 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q2. Consider the following statements regarding India’s FDI trends as per GITM 2025:

1. India recorded a sharp rise in FDI inflows in 2025, driven mainly by services and manufacturing sectors.
2. India’s FDI inflows declined in 2025 due to global economic slowdown.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q3. Assertion (A): The United States’ exit from the International Solar Alliance (ISA) has disrupted India’s solar energy expansion to the extent that it is irreversible.

Reason (R): The U.S. contributes only a marginal share to ISA’s funding, while India’s solar sector is sustained by domestic policy support, long-term contracts, and growing indigenous manufacturing capacity.

Choose the correct answer:

A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

C. A is true, but R is false

D. A is false, but R is true

Q4. With reference to the Padma Awards, consider the following statements:

1. The Padma Awards were instituted in 1954 by the Government of India.
2. The total number of Padma Awards conferred in a year is capped at 120, excluding posthumous and foreign/NRI/OCI awardees.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q5. Which country co-chaired the 6th ASEAN–India Digital Ministers’ Meeting (ADGMIN) along with India?

A. Thailand

B. Indonesia

C. Vietnam

D. Singapore

Q1. Which of the following statements about steel slag is/are correct?

1. Steel slag is an industrial by-product generated during steel manufacturing and contains calcium and magnesium silicates.
2. Steel slag is used in road construction due to its higher strength and better skid resistance.
3. Use of steel slag in infrastructure increases dependence on natural aggregates.
4. Steel slag can be used for environmental remediation, including mine water treatment.

Options:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1, 2 and 4 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q2. Consider the following statements:

1. Jamma Bane lands include both paddy-growing wetlands and forested highlands in Kodagu.
2. The Karnataka Land Revenue (2nd Amendment) Act, 2025 aims to modernize land records and resolve ownership ambiguities in Jamma Bane lands.

Options:

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q3. Consider the following statements:

1. The Digital Climate Atlas (ACASA-India) has been developed by ICAR-led NARES in collaboration with BISA–CIMMYT.
2. NICRA was launched in 2011 by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
3. Climate Resilient Agriculture focuses on both adaptation and mitigation to withstand climate shocks.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q4. Assertion (A): The Government is promoting diversification of fish species in aquaculture to reduce economic and ecological risks.

Reason (R): Dependence on a single fish or shrimp species increases vulnerability to diseases, climate impacts, and export uncertainties.

Options:

A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

C. A is true, but R is false

D. A is false, but R is true

Q5. Lakkundi, which is being considered for inclusion in UNESCO’s World Heritage Site list, is located in which district of Karnataka?

A. Hampi district

B. Belagavi district

C. Gadag district

D. Dharwad district

Q1. Consider the following statements:

1. Secondary particulate matter forms in the atmosphere through chemical reactions and is not emitted directly from sources.
2. A CAQM meta-analysis identifies secondary particulate matter as the largest contributor to Delhi’s winter PM2.5 pollution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q2. Assertion (A): Deodar (Devdar) forests play a critical role in preventing natural disasters in the Himalayan region.

Reason (R): Their deep root systems stabilise mountain slopes, reduce landslides and avalanches, and help regulate local air and water temperatures.

Options:

A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

C. A is true, but R is false

D. A is false, but R is true

Q3. With reference to the Governor’s address to the State Legislature, consider the following statements:

1. The Governor can modify or omit portions of the address prepared by the elected State government.
2. The Governor is constitutionally required to address the Legislature at the commencement of the first session after a general election and at the first session of every year.
3. The Governor exercises the power to summon or delay the Legislature independently of the Council of Ministers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q4. Parakram Diwas is observed annually on 23 January to commemorate the birth anniversary of which Indian freedom fighter known for founding the Forward Bloc and leading the Indian National Army?

A. Bhagat Singh

B. Lala Lajpat Rai

C. Subhash Chandra Bose

D. Jawaharlal Nehru

Q5. What is the full form of LR-AShM?

A. Long Range Advanced Strike Missile

B. Long Range Anti-Ship Hypersonic Missile

C. Low Range Anti-Submarine Missile

D. Long Range Atmospheric Shield Missile

Q1. With reference to the Promotion and Regulation of Online Gaming Act, 2025, consider the following statements:

1. The Act prohibits offering, advertising, or facilitating real-money online gaming.
2. It empowers authorities to block illegal betting and gambling websites using provisions of the Information Technology Act, 2000.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Neither 1 nor 2

D. Both 1 and 2

Q2. With reference to the Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development, consider the following statements:

1. It was instituted in the year 1986 in memory of Indira Gandhi.
2. It is awarded only to Indian citizens for contributions to peace and development.
3. The award carries a cash prize of ₹1 crore along with a citation and trophy.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q3. Assertion (A): The introduction of a digital attendance system in the Lok Sabha will improve discipline, transparency, and accountability among Members of Parliament.

Reason (R): The digital attendance system uses biometric verification from designated seats inside the House and links attendance strictly with daily allowance, preventing proxy marking and post-adjournment attendance.

Answer options:

A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

C. A is true, but R is false

D.  A is false, but R is true

Q4. With reference to the Miyawaki Method of afforestation, consider the following statements:

1. It involves dense plantation of native species to create fast-growing and self-sustaining forests.
2. Trees planted under this method grow slower than conventional plantations due to limited space.
3. The method was developed by Akira Miyawaki and is based on the concept of potential natural vegetation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.  1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D.  1, 2 and 3

Q5. Which of the following best describes the newly launched ECINET platform by the Election Commission of India?

A. A social media monitoring tool managed by political parties to counter fake news

B. A single digital platform integrating over 40 Election Commission apps to provide electoral services to voters, officials and political parties

C. A mobile-only application meant exclusively for election officials to manage voter rolls

D. A privately managed portal allowing public edits to electoral data

Q1. With reference to the Arbitration Council of India (ACI), consider the following statements:

1. The Arbitration Council of India was proposed through amendments to the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 in 2019.
2. The ACI is intended to act as the central regulator for institutional arbitration in India.
3. The ACI has been fully constituted and operational since the enactment of the 2019 amendments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C.  1 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q2. With reference to the global ‘Copper Crunch’, consider the following statements:

1. Rapid growth in EV adoption has sharply increased copper demand due to higher copper use per vehicle.
2. Environmental opposition and regulatory hurdles have contributed to slower expansion of copper mining capacity.
3. Copper shortages are expected to have no impact on global decarbonisation targets.

Which of the statements given above are incorrect?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q3. Assertion (A): State police are legally empowered to investigate bribery and corruption cases against Central Government employees under the Prevention of Corruption Act.

Reason (R): Section 17 of the Prevention of Corruption Act does not bar State police from registering or investigating corruption offences, and Section 156 of the Criminal Procedure Code authorises police to investigate cognizable offences without prior approval.

Choose the correct answer using the code below:

A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

C. A is true, but R is false

D. A is false, but R is true

Q4. Which of the following is a key reason why rising State borrowings in India are pushing up Central Government bond yields?

A. States borrow exclusively from foreign markets

B. State Development Loans (SDLs) offer higher yields than G-secs, attracting investors away from them

C. RBI mandates banks to stop investing in Central Government bonds

D. Central Government has stopped issuing long-term securities

Q5. With reference to the Greater Bengaluru Area (Advertisement) Rules, 2025, consider the following statements:

1. The rules lift the long-standing ban on outdoor advertisements in Bengaluru.
2. Advertisers are required to make an upfront payment of five months after securing advertising rights.
3. Commercial advertisements are prohibited on roads narrower than 18 metres, except in notified commercial or industrial zones.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q1. With reference to the proposal to link Central Bank Digital Currencies (CBDCs) of BRICS countries, consider the following statements:

1. The Reserve Bank of India has suggested placing the issue of linking BRICS CBDCs on the agenda of the 2026 BRICS Summit to be hosted by India.
2. CBDCs are privately issued digital assets that operate outside the control of central banks.
3. One objective of linking BRICS CBDCs is to reduce dependence on the US dollar in cross-border payments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q2. Assertion (A): Project Suncatcher aims to host AI data centres in space to reduce the energy and cooling burden of Earth-based data centres.

Reason (R): Solar-powered satellites can generate continuous renewable energy and support AI computing using onboard Tensor Processing Units (TPUs).

Choose the correct answer using the code below:

A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

C. A is true, but R is false

D. A is false, but R is true

Q3. With reference to India–UAE relations, consider the following statements:

1. India and the UAE have set a target to double bilateral trade to USD 200 billion by 2032.
2. India–UAE CEPA was signed in 2020 to promote bilateral trade and investment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q4. With reference to Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) mechanisms in India, consider the following statements:

1. Arbitration leads to a binding decision called an arbitral award.
2. Section 89 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 empowers courts to refer disputes to ADR mechanisms.
3. The Mediation Act, 2023 institutionalises mediation and promotes pre-litigation mediation for certain disputes.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1, 2 and 3

D. 1 and 3 only

Q5. With reference to copper, consider the following statements:

1. Copper has the second-highest electrical conductivity among metals, after silver.
2. Malanjkhand mine in Madhya Pradesh is the largest open-pit copper mine in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B.  2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q1. With reference to the United Nations Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC), consider the following statements:

1. ECOSOC is one of the six principal organs of the United Nations.
2. It was established under the United Nations Charter in 1945.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q2. Consider the following statements regarding river dolphins:

1. River dolphins are functionally blind and depend on echolocation for navigation and hunting.
2. River dolphins are primary consumers in the river ecosystem.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q3. With reference to the International Monetary Fund (IMF), consider the following statements:

1. The IMF was established at the Bretton Woods Conference in 1944.
2. India became a founding member of the IMF in 1947.
3. The headquarters of the IMF is located in Washington D.C.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 2 only

D.  1, 2 and 3

Q4.With reference to India’s labour codes, consider the following:

1. Code on Wages, 2019
2. Industrial Relations Code, 2020
3. Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020
4. Code on Social Security, 2020

Which of the above were cited by the committee as providing coverage to domestic workers?

A. 1 and 4 only

B. 2, 3 and 4 only

C. 1, 2, 3 and 4

D. 1, 2 and 3 only

Q5. With reference to the CHIPS to Start-up (C2S) Programme, consider the following statements:

1. It is a capacity-building initiative launched by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology in 2022.
2. The programme focuses exclusively on semiconductor fabrication, excluding chip design and testing.
3. It aims to promote start-ups and technology transfers in the semiconductor ecosystem.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B.  1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q1.With reference to Karnataka’s performance in Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY), consider the following statements:

1. Karnataka was ranked second among large states in the implementation of PMFBY.
2. The ranking was based on the performance during Kharif 2024 and Rabi 2024-25 seasons.
3. The certificate of commendation was issued by NITI Aayog.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q2. With reference to Mission Suraksha, consider the following statements:

1. It has encouraged minors to report cases of sexual assault and domestic violence.
2. Vigilance committees were constituted only in rural gram panchayats.
3. The initiative operates at both rural and urban local body levels.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 1 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q3. Assertion (A): Child trafficking continues to be a grave human rights violation in India.

Reason (R): NCRB data shows a low conviction rate of about 10.8% in child trafficking cases between 2018 and 2022.

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C. A is true but R is false

D. A is false but R is true

Q4.  Consider the following statements regarding coconut-producing states in India:

1. Karnataka is the largest coconut-producing state in India.
2. Tamil Nadu and Kerala are among the top three coconut-producing states.
3. Andhra Pradesh is the largest coconut producer in India.

Which of the statements given above are incorrect?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q5. The Kaziranga Elevated Corridor project is primarily intended to achieve which of the following objectives?

A. Promote tourism within Kaziranga National Park only

B. Ensure uninterrupted animal movement and reduce human–wildlife conflict

C. Expand urban connectivity between Guwahati and Dibrugarh

D. Increase commercial traffic through protected forest areas

Q1. Jallikattu, recently seen in news, is best described as:

A. A ritual animal sacrifice performed during Tamil New Year

B. A traditional bull-taming sport associated with the Pongal festival in Tamil Nadu

C. A form of competitive goat racing practised across South India

D. A martial art performed to honour warriors in ancient Tamil society 

Q2. With reference to Startup India Mission completing 10 years, consider the following statements:

1. Startup India was launched in 2016 to promote entrepreneurship, innovation and investment-led growth.
2. India has emerged as the world’s largest start-up ecosystem.
3. The mission places special emphasis on deep-tech sectors to strengthen Atmanirbhar Bharat and reduce import dependence.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q3. With reference to the proposed International Dugong Conservation Centre in Tamil Nadu, consider the following statements:

1. The proposed site overlaps with ecologically sensitive CRZ-III (No Development Zone) and CRZ-I areas.
2. Dugongs are critically endangered marine mammals that depend on seagrass meadows for survival.
3. The Expert Appraisal Committee recommended increasing the use of concrete structures within the CRZ-III area.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q4.  The Reserve Bank – Integrated Ombudsman Scheme (RB-IOS), 2026, recently notified by the RBI, primarily aims to:

A. Regulate interest rates of banks and NBFCs

B. Provide a centralized, cost-effective and non-adversarial grievance redress mechanism against RBI-regulated entities

C. Replace all consumer courts dealing with financial disputes

D. Impose monetary penalties on regulated entities without hearings

Q5. Q. Under the Reserve Bank – Integrated Ombudsman Scheme (RB-IOS), 2026, which of the following statements is correct?

A. The RBI Ombudsman can award compensation without any upper monetary limit.

B. Complaints can be filed only after exhausting judicial remedies.

C. Appeals against the Ombudsman’s decision can be filed within 30 days.

D. Only banks are covered under the Integrated Ombudsman Scheme.

Q1. Which of the following statements best describes the purpose and scope of the proposed Karnataka Jnana Bhandar Manuscripts and Digitalisation Bill, 2025?

A. It aims to regulate the export of ancient manuscripts and restrict private ownership of historical records.

B. It focuses only on digitising printed manuscripts preserved in state-run libraries.

C. It mandates compulsory acquisition of all inscriptions by the state government.

D. It seeks to survey, preserve, digitise, and provide public access to unpublished manuscripts of various materials linked to Karnataka, including those in private custody.

Q2. With reference to the NITI Aayog report “Achieving Efficiencies in MSME Sector through Convergence of Schemes”, consider the following statements:

1. The report evaluates existing Government of India MSME schemes to assess the level of convergence.
2. The report recommends integrating SFURTI with the Micro and Small Enterprises – Cluster Development Programme (MSE-CDP).
3. Information convergence refers to aligning and unifying MSME schemes to eliminate operational overlaps.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q3. Assertion (A): Ethylene Glycol ingestion can lead to severe metabolic acidosis and kidney failure in humans.

Reason (R): Ethylene Glycol is metabolized in the human body into toxic acidic compounds.

Choose the correct answer:

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C. A is true but R is false

D. A is false but R is true

Q4. With reference to Exercise Sanjha Shakti, consider the following statements:

1. It is a joint Military–Civil Fusion (MCF) exercise aimed at enhancing coordination between armed forces and civil agencies.
2. The exercise was conducted under the Southern Command at the Dighi (Diggi) Hills Range.
3. It involved participation only from the Indian Army and excluded state police forces.
4. One of its objectives is to test communication protocols and rapid response mechanisms during crisis situations.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 4 only

Q5. Kathputli, recently in news, is best described as:

A. A shadow puppetry tradition from Odisha using leather puppets

B. A traditional string puppet theatre form from Rajasthan

C. A glove puppetry art form practised mainly in Kerala

D. A rod puppetry tradition associated with West Bengal

Q1. Consider the following statements regarding India’s first Vulture Conservation Portal:

1. It was launched in Assam ahead of International Vulture Awareness Day.
2. It was developed by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
3. The portal aims to build a national network for vulture conservation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q2. Assertion (A): Active euthanasia is illegal in India.

Reason (R): Causing death through direct medical intervention is treated as culpable homicide under Indian law.

Choose the correct answer:

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C. A is true but R is false

D. A is false but R is true

Q3. A Living Will or Advance Medical Directive allows a person to:

A. Transfer property after death

B. Authorize active euthanasia

C. Refuse life-support treatment in future medical conditions

D. Appoint a legal guardian

Q4. Consider the following statements regarding the Export Preparedness Index (EPI) 2024:

1. It is released by NITI Aayog.
2. It assesses export preparedness of States and Union Territories.
3. It is aligned with India’s target of USD 1 trillion merchandise exports by 2030.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 2 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q5. Who has been nominated to chair the Advisory Board on Disarmament Matters (ABDM) for the 2026–27 term?

A. Syed Akbaruddin

B. Ruchira Kamboj

C. D.B. Venkatesh Varma

D. Vikram Misri

Q1. Consider the following statements regarding Quick Commerce (Q-commerce):

1. Q-commerce focuses on ultra-fast delivery of essential goods, usually within 10–20 minutes.
2. It relies primarily on centralized national warehouses.
3. Gig workers form the backbone of last-mile delivery in Q-commerce.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q2. The removal of speed-centric branding by quick commerce platforms indicates:

A. End of digital commerce

B. Shift towards worker-sensitive business practices

C. Government takeover of platforms

D. End of gig economy

Q3. Assertion (A): Karuna Abhiyan is widely considered as India’s first state-driven, festival-linked widlife protection campaign.

Reason (R): It was launched to rescue birds and animals injured mainly due to kite-flying during festivals like Uttarayan through coordinated state-wide efforts.

Choose the correct answer:

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C. A is true but R is false

D. A is false but R is true

Q4. Why are vultures considered ecologically important?

1. They help prevent the spread of diseases.
2. They contribute to natural sanitation by disposing carcasses.
3. They increase soil fertility through grazing.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q5. Marine biotechnology primarily involves the use of:

A. Terrestrial plants for industrial enzymes

B. Marine organisms such as microbes, algae and seaweeds for bio-based products

C. Freshwater fish for pharmaceutical research only

D. Fossil fuels for chemical synthesis

Q1. With reference to solar panels and biofuels, consider the following statements:

1. Biofuels require large areas of land but produce relatively low energy per acre due to the low efficiency of photosynthesis.
2. Solar panels convert sunlight directly into electricity with efficiencies much higher than biological processes.
3. Replacing biofuel crops with solar installations can help free land for food production, reforestation, and biodiversity conservation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q2. With reference to the significance of carbon markets under the Paris Agreement for India, consider the following statements:

1. Carbon markets can help mobilise private international finance to support India’s energy transition.
2. Participation in carbon markets can facilitate access to advanced low-carbon technologies and support decarbonisation of hard-to-abate sectors.
3. Carbon markets eliminate the need for domestic regulatory frameworks in participating countries.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q3. Assertion (A): The Union Government has constituted a high-level Inter-Departmental Committee to address the rising incidence of “digital arrest” scams in India.

Reason (R): “Digital arrest” is a legally recognised procedure under Indian law that requires inter-ministerial coordination for its enforcement.

A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

C. A is true, but R is false

D. A is false, but R is true

Q4. The recently constituted Inter-Departmental Committee (IDC) to tackle “digital arrest” scams in India is chaired by:

A. Cabinet Secretary of India

B. Director, Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C)

C. Special Secretary (Internal Security), Ministry of Home Affairs

D. Union Home Secretary

Q5. Why is there a growing concern about the environmental impact of Artificial Intelligence (AI)?

A. AI systems depend primarily on rare earth minerals for their functioning

B. Training and deployment of AI models require large computing power, leading to high energy use, water consumption, and increased carbon emissions

C. AI development increases employment in traditional sectors, increasing poverty

D. AI technologies are restricted to developed countries and cannot be regulated

Q1. With reference to delimitation in India, consider the following statements:

1. Delimitation involves the redistribution of Lok Sabha seats among States based on population data.
2. The present freeze on Lok Sabha seat allocation was introduced by the 84th Constitutional Amendment Act.
3. Any delimitation exercise must mandatorily be based on the 2011 Census.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q2. The principle of “digressive proportionality” aims to:

(a) Provide equal seats to all States irrespective of population

(b) Allocate seats strictly in proportion to population size

(c) Ensure larger States have more seats but fewer representatives per capita

(d) Replace population with economic contribution as the basis of representation

Q3. Assertion (A): The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012 provides a comprehensive and child-centric legal framework to address sexual offences against children in India.

Reason (R): The Act is gender-neutral, clearly categorizes offences with stringent punishments, and mandates Special Courts to conduct speedy, in-camera trials while ensuring compensation and rehabilitation for child victims.

Choose the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true, but R is false

(d) A is false, but R is true

Q4. What is the primary concern raised by smartphone manufacturers regarding India’s proposal to seek access to phone source codes under the Indian Telecom Security Assurance Requirements (ITSAR)?

(a) It would significantly increase smartphone prices in India

(b) It risks exposure of proprietary encryption systems and software architecture

(c) It mandates complete data localization of user information

(d) It eliminates the need for private cybersecurity audits

Q5. With reference to the Pax Silica Initiative, consider the following statements:

1. Pax Silica is a US-led economic security partnership focused on securing semiconductor and AI-critical supply chains.
2. The initiative is led by the US Department of Commerce and was launched at the first summit in 2024.
3. It seeks to build trusted technology ecosystems by restricting cooperation to reliable partner countries.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q1. Which of the following components are integrated under Climate-Resilient Agriculture?

1. Climate-tolerant and genome-edited crops
2. Biofertilisers and biopesticides
3. AI-based agro-advisories

Select the correct answer using the code below:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q2. Climate-Resilient Agriculture (CRA) primarily aims to:

A. Maximise short-term farm output through chemical inputs

B. Sustain productivity while adapting to climate variability

C. Replace traditional farming with industrial agriculture

D. Focus only on export-oriented crops

Q3. Assertion (A): India ranks second highest in Asia in the World Risk Index.

Reason (R): The World Risk Index measures disaster risk only on the basis of hazard frequency.

A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

B. Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

C. A is true, but R is false

D. A is false, but R is true

Q4. The GOBARdhan initiative contributes to urban climate action primarily by:

A. Eliminating landfill usage

B. Producing compressed biogas from organic waste

C. Promoting electric waste collection vehicles

D. Recycling electronic waste

Q5. With reference to Rani Velu Nachiyar, consider the following statements:

1. She was trained in horse riding, archery, and martial arts such as Silambam and Valari.
2. She ruled after the Revolt of 1857.
3. She fought against British colonial forces in South India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q1. With reference to the Piprahwa Relics, consider the following statements:

1. They were discovered in the year 1898 at the Piprahwa Stupa in present-day Uttar Pradesh.
2. The discovery is attributed to William Claxton Peppé, a British civil engineer.
3. The relics are believed to be associated with the mortal remains of Lord Buddha.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q2. Which of the following factors best explains India’s emergence as the world’s largest rice producer?

1. Adoption of high-yielding varieties (HYVs)
2. Expansion of irrigation facilities
3. Policy support such as MSP and procurement

Select the correct answer using the code below:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q3. The rice crop that is sown during May–June and harvested during September–October is known as:

A. Aman

B. Aus

C. Boro

D. Rabi

Q4. Israel recently became the first country to formally recognise which of the following entities as an independent and sovereign state?

A. Puntland

B. Western Sahara

C. Somaliland

D. South Sudan

Q5. With reference to the Election Commission of India, consider the following statements:

1. The ECI is a constitutional authority.
2. It is entrusted with ensuring free, fair, and credible elections in India.
3. It functions under the administrative control of the Union Executive.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q1. Which of the following statements about India’s GDP growth estimates for FY 2025–26 is correct?

A. Real GDP growth is projected to be lower than that of FY 2024–25

B. Gross Value Added (GVA) is projected to grow at 7.3%

C. Agriculture and allied activities are expected to grow faster than services

D. Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF) is projected to grow below 6%

Q2. Spina Bifida is best described as:

A. A hereditary muscular disorder affecting only adults

B. A birth defect of the spinal cord that develops during early pregnancy

C. An infectious disease caused by vitamin deficiency after birth

D. A temporary neurological condition curable with medication

Q3. Consider the following statements about India–Europe relations in the current geopolitical context:

1. India’s participation in the Weimar Triangle reflects Europe’s recognition of India as a strategic and geopolitical actor, beyond its economic importance.
2. Growing uncertainty in U.S. commitments to NATO and the Ukraine conflict has contributed to Europe’s search for new strategic partners like India.
3. India’s engagement with Europe marks a shift away from strategic autonomy towards formal alliance-building.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q4. Assertion (A): A 500% tariff proposed under the U.S. Sanctioning Russia Act of 2025 would effectively act as a trade embargo on Indian goods in the U.S. market.

Reason (R): Such an extremely high tariff would make Indian exports economically uncompetitive, reducing their market access in the United States.

Choose the correct answer:

A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

C. A is true, but R is false

D. A is false, but R is true

Q5. Under the Draft Pesticides Management Bill, which of the following penalties may be imposed for violations causing death or grievous hurt?

A. Only monetary fine up to ₹5 lakh

B. Imprisonment up to 5 years or fine between ₹10 lakh and ₹50 lakh, or both

C. Imprisonment up to 1 year with no monetary penalty

D. Cancellation of licence without criminal liability

1. Consider the following statements about India’s economic performance in 2025:
1. India became the world’s 4th largest economy surpassing Japan.
2. GDP growth remained above 7% in all three quarters of 2025 mentioned.
3. U.S. tariffs had no reported effect on India’s economic outlook.
Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 & 3 only
B. 1 & 2 only
C. 2 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3

2. Consider the following statements regarding RBI’s Trends & Progress of Banking in India 2024–25 report:
1. Digital payments account for more than 95% of India’s total payments in value terms.
2. Cheque-based transactions now constitute less than 5% share.
3. Digital payment growth in value was approximately 18%.
Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 & 2 only
B. 1 & 3 only
C. 3 & 2 only
D. 1, 2 & 3

3. With reference to cheetah extinction in India:
1. Cheetahs were declared extinct in India in 1952.
2. The last recorded cheetahs in India were killed in Madhya Pradesh in 1947.
3. Asiatic cheetahs today survive in India and Iran.
Which of the above is/are correct?l?

A. 1 & 2 only
B. 2 & 3 only
C. 1 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3

4. Consider the following statements regarding recent archaeological findings in Kashmir:
1. Kushan-period stupas and Buddhist structures have been unearthed at Zehanpora in Baramulla.
2. The findings reaffirm Kashmir’s role in Buddhist scholarship and transmission.
3. These remains belong to the Mauryan period.
Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 & 2 only
B. 2 & 3 only
C. 1 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3

1. Consider the following statements regarding the new MoRTH tunnel guidelines:
1. They mandate preparation of a Geotechnical Baseline Report (GBR).
2. They require preparation of a Risk Register with defined risk allocation.
3. They are applicable only to tunnels constructed using TBM technology.
Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 & 2 only
B. 1 & 3 only
C. 2 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3

2. With reference to the new landslide early warning framework developed by NITK, consider the following statements:
1. It is designed specifically for landslide-prone regions of the Western Ghats.
2. It integrates soil behaviour and deformation data along with rainfall parameters.
3. It relies only on traditional rainfall threshold alerts.
Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 & 3 only
B. 1 & 2 only
C. 2 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3

3. Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Tsunami-Ready’ programme in India:
1. Certification is granted under UNESCO-IOC.
2. It is a voluntary, community-based programme.
3. Only national agencies are involved; local bodies have no role.
Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 & 2 only
B. 1 & 3 only
C. 3 & 2 only
D. 1, 2 & 3

4. Consider the following pesticides linked to health concerns in the Kashmir apple sector:
1. Chlorpyrifos
2. Mancozeb
3. Captan
Which of the above have been internationally flagged for neurotoxicity and/or carcinogenic potential?

A. 1 & 2 only
B. 2 & 3 only
C. 1 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3

5. With reference to Punjab’s ‘Holy City’ declaration, consider the following statements:
1. The status has been granted to Amritsar, Anandpur Sahib and Talwandi Sabo.
2. The decision was unanimously passed in the Punjab Assembly.
3. The status imposes bans on liquor, tobacco and meat sales within notified areas.
Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 & 2 only
B. 2 & 3 only
C. 1 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3

1. Consider the following statements regarding Personality Rights in India:
1. India currently has a dedicated statute exclusively governing personality rights.
2. Courts derive personality rights through IP law and Article 21.
3. These rights protect against false endorsements and commercial misuse.
Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 & 2 only
B. 1 & 3 only
C. 2 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3

2. Consider the following statements about bus fire incidents in India (2021–2025):
1. India recorded over 40 reported bus fire incidents during this period.
2. Karnataka reported the highest fatalities in all states.
3. Major causes include overheating engines and electrical failures.
Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 & 2 only
B. 1 & 3 only
C. 2 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3

3. Consider the following statements regarding Delhi’s PM2.5 pollution:
1. Secondary ammonium sulfate contributes significantly to Delhi’s annual PM2.5.
2. It forms when SO₂-derived sulfate reacts with atmospheric ammonia.
3. Its share in PM2.5 remains highest during the summer season.
Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 & 2 only
B. 1 & 3 only
C. 3 & 2 only
D. 1, 2 & 3

4. Consider the following statements regarding the RGI Medical Certification of Cause of Death Report (2023):
1. Circulatory system diseases accounted for over one-third of medically certified deaths.
2. Medically certified deaths constituted less than one-fourth of total registered deaths.
3. The share of circulatory deaths increased compared to 2022.
Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 & 2 only
B. 2 & 3 only
C. 1 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3

5. Why is a common ATS framework important in India’s counter-terror strategy?
1. Terror and organised crime networks operate beyond State boundaries.
2. It prevents investigations from remaining isolated.
3. It enhances intelligence integration through platforms like NATGRID and NIDAAN.
Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1, 2 & 3
B. 2 & 3 only
C. 1 & 3 only
D. 1 & 2 only

1. Consider the following statements regarding India’s export outlook for FY 2025–26:
1. India is projected to comfortably exceed the $1 trillion export target.
2. Merchandise exports are expected to remain largely stagnant.
3. Services exports may cross $400 billion.
Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 & 2 only
B. 1 & 3 only
C. 2 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3

2. Consider the following statements regarding the Nilgiris AI Command Centre:
1. It is located in the Gudalur Forest Division of Tamil Nadu.
2. It uses AI-enabled cameras based on long-term elephant movement data.
3. It is not connected to any railway safety warning system.
Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 & 2 only
B. 1 & 3 only
C. 2 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3

3. With reference to the parachute testing for Gaganyaan, consider the following statements:
1. The recent tests focused mainly on drogue parachutes.
2. The tests were conducted using a rocket sled reaching nearly 600 km/h.
3. The facility used was located in Tamil Nadu.
Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 & 3 only
B. 1 & 2 only
C. 3 & 2 only
D. 1, 2 & 3

4. Consider the following statements regarding the LVM3-M6 mission:
1. It successfully placed the BlueBird Block-2 satellite into Low Earth Orbit.
2. It is the heaviest commercial satellite ever launched from India.
3. The orbit was achieved within roughly 15 minutes of launch.
Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 & 2 only
B. 2 & 3 only
C. 1 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3

5. Consider the following statements regarding the new mosquito migration study:
1. It provides direct evidence of mosquitoes carrying pathogens while flying at high altitudes.
2. The study was conducted in parts of West Africa using aerial sampling nets.
3. Only non-human pathogens were detected.
Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1, 2 & 3
B. 2 & 3 only
C. 1 & 3 only
D. 1 & 2 only

1. Regarding India’s progress toward NEP 2020 targets, consider the following:
1. NEP 2020 aims for 100% Gross Enrollment Ratio at middle and secondary levels.
2. Current secondary GER is over 90%.
3. GER decline indicates limited success in retention.
Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 & 2 only
B. 1 & 3 only
C. 2 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3

2. With reference to recent trends in India’s exports, consider the following statements:
1. Export contribution is becoming geographically more concentrated.
2. The Herfindahl–Hirschman Index suggests rising dispersion of export contribution among States.
3. Coastal States dominate integration into global value chains.

A. 1 & 2 only
B. 2 & 3 only
C. 1 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3

3. With reference to India’s manufacturing stagnation, consider the following:
1. High public sector wages increased economy-wide costs.
2. Real exchange rate appreciation weakened manufacturing competitiveness.
3. Import competition strengthened domestic industry.

A. 1 & 2 only
B. 2 & 3 only
C. 1 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3

4. With reference to rhino conservation, consider the following:
1. Dehorning is a non-lethal and reversible procedure.
2. Dehorned rhinos showed significantly lower poaching risk.
3. Dehorning constitutes the largest share of anti-poaching budgets.

A. 1, 2 & 3
B. 2 & 3 only
C. 1 & 3 only
D. 1 & 2 only

1. With reference to the Vijayanagara Empire, consider the following statements:
1. Temples functioned only as religious centres without economic roles.
2. The state invested heavily in irrigation infrastructure like tanks and canals.
3. Overseas trade formed an important component of its economy.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 only

2. The Right to Disconnect Bill is constitutionally significant because it is linked to:

A. Article 14 and equality at workplace
B. Article 19 and freedom of expression
C. Article 21 and individual autonomy
D. Article 23 and protection against exploitation

3. With reference to India’s startup funding in 2025, consider the following statements:
1. The funding decline indicates a cyclical collapse of the ecosystem.
2. DeepTech and AI-led manufacturing emerged as key growth drivers.
3. Late-stage funding increased due to renewed risk appetite.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 2 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

4. The term “freshwater lid” in the context of the Southern Ocean refers to:

A. Permanent ice shelves preventing air–sea gas exchange
B. Stratified, low-salinity surface waters limiting vertical mixing
C. Reduced wind stress over polar oceans
D. Absence of deep ocean circulation

5. With reference to the Great Indian Bustard (GIB), consider the following statements:
1. It is endemic to India and primarily dependent on grassland ecosystems.
2. It is listed under Schedule II of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
3. It acts as an indicator species for grassland health.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

6. The conservation of the Great Indian Bustard most directly reflects which constitutional principle?

A. Absolute priority of economic development
B. Separation of powers
C. State’s duty to protect wildlife and environment
D. Free trade and commerce

7. With reference to ASW Shallow Water Craft (SWC) inducted by the Indian Navy, consider the following statements:
1. They are optimised for anti-submarine operations in coastal and shallow waters.
2. They are the largest Indian naval vessels to use waterjet propulsion.
3. They are imported platforms with limited indigenous content.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

8. The Right to a Healthy Environment in India is primarily derived from which constitutional provision through judicial interpretation?

A. Article 14
B. Article 19
C. Article 21
D. Article 32

9. With reference to GhostPairing, consider the following statements:
1. It exploits WhatsApp’s Linked Devices feature to gain unauthorised access.
2. It requires SIM cloning to hijack accounts.
3.The attack is based on social engineering rather than malware.
Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 1 & 2 only
C. 1 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3

10. Consider the following statements regarding Sivakalai archaeological site:
1. Carbon dating places iron usage at around 5300 years BP.
2. It currently represents the earliest known Iron Age evidence globally.
3. The findings were validated by the Archaeological Survey of India alone.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 1 & 2 only
C. 1 & 3 only
D. 1, 2 & 3

1. With reference to the Securities Markets Code Bill, 2025, consider the following statements:
1. It replaces three existing securities-related Acts with a single code.
2. It was first proposed in the Union Budget 2025.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

2. With reference to DHRUV64, consider the following statements:
1. It is a 64-bit, dual-core microprocessor developed by C-DAC.
2. It is based on the proprietary ARM instruction set.
3. It primarily targets high-end consumer personal computers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1 only

3. With reference to MH-60R helicopters, consider the following statements:
1. They are manufactured in India under a joint venture.
2. They are capable of anti-submarine and anti-surface warfare.
3. They support all-weather, day-and-night operations.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

4. With reference to the India–Oman CEPA, consider the following statements:
1. Oman has granted zero-duty access on more than 95% of its tariff lines.
2. India has removed tariffs on imports covering over 90% of value from Oman.
Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

1. With reference to the SHANTI Bill, 2025, consider the following statements:
1. It allows private sector participation in nuclear power generation in India.
2. It repeals the Atomic Energy Act, 1962 and the Civil Liability to Nuclear Damage Act, 2010.
3. It converts the Atomic Energy Regulatory Board into a constitutionally mandated body.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

2. Allowing higher FDI in the insurance sector is expected to have which of the following impacts?
1. Increased insurance penetration
2. Greater competition and innovation
3. Reduced role of regulation
Select the correct answer:

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

3. With reference to the Supreme Court’s Aravalli order (2025), consider the following statements:
1. The Court adopted a uniform elevation-based definition for Aravalli hills.
2. All mining activities in the Aravalli range were permanently banned.
3. The order was based on recommendations of the Central Empowered Committee.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

4. The ecological significance of the Aravalli range includes:
1. Acting as a barrier against the eastward expansion of the Thar Desert
2. Serving as major glacier-fed river systems
3. Facilitating groundwater recharge through fractured rock systems
Select the correct answer using the code below

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

5. With reference to Project Suncatcher, consider the following statements:
1. It proposes satellite-based data centres powered entirely by solar energy.
2. It is aimed at reducing the environmental footprint of AI data infrastructure on Earth.
3. It is part of Google’s commercial cloud expansion programme.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

1. With reference to the Prime Minister Professorship, consider the following statements:
1. It aims to decentralise research excellence beyond elite institutions.
2. It is limited to funding individual research projects.
3. It mandates full-time relocation to the host university.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

2. Which of the following best explains the significance of reclaiming unclaimed assets in India?

A. Reduces fiscal deficit directly
B. Enhances financial inclusion and citizen trust
C. Increases government non-tax revenue
D. Promotes monetisation of public sector banks

3. With reference to Jackson Gate, consider the following statements:
1. It was constructed during the Manikya dynasty to mark the visit of the Governor of Bengal.
2. Its architectural design drew inspiration from Hyderabad’s Charminar.
3. It functioned as the main entrance to the Tripura Legislative Assembly.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

4. With reference to International Anti-Corruption Day, consider the following statements:
1. It is observed annually on 9 December.
2. It is linked to the United Nations Convention against Corruption.
3. The 2025 theme focuses on institutional reforms alone.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

5. Consider the following statements about the UNCAC Conference of States Parties:
1. It serves as the supreme decision-making body of UNCAC.
2. The 11th session is scheduled to be held in Doha in December 2025.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

6. With reference to the proposed VB-G RAM G Bill, consider the following statements:
1. It increases guaranteed employment days beyond MGNREGA limits.
2. It retains a demand-driven legal entitlement to employment.
3. It allows States to seek additional funds based on rural demand.
Which of the statements are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3

7. With reference to the revised Seismic Zonation Map 2025, consider the following statements:
1. A new Zone VI has been introduced as the highest seismic risk category.
2. The Himalayan belt is now uniformly classified under the highest-risk zone.
3. Zonation is still primarily based on historical earthquake events.
Which of the statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

8. India’s high seismic vulnerability is mainly due to:

A. Stable continental shield and old mountains
B. Collision of Indian and Eurasian plates and active Himalayan faults
C. Excessive urbanisation alone
D. Volcanic activity in peninsular India

9. With reference to INSV Kaundinya, consider the following statements:
1. It is constructed using metal fastenings to improve durability.
2. Its design draws inspiration from Ajanta Cave paintings.
3. It was inducted into the Indian Navy in 2025.
Which of the statements are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3

10. With reference to UNESCO’s Intangible Cultural Heritage (ICH), consider the following statements:
1. India hosted the 20th ICH Intergovernmental Committee session in 2025.
2. The session was held at a UNESCO World Heritage Site in New Delhi.
Which of the statements are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2